I was looking at my savings acct today and I noticed a pay check deposit that looked really low. So I went to Express HR or HR Express or whatever the f*ck they call it and I pulled up that week. it was the Labor Day week a couple pay periods back. I usually just work 32 hours and get the 8 hours of holiday pay to make my 40. I noticed that I did not receive my 8 hours of Holiday Pay! I worked on Sunday; was scheduled Monday and Tuesday off; then I worked on Wednesday. I was also scheduled to have Thursday off. I called off on Friday due to car problems then I worked on Saturday. Now I was scheduled on Wednesday to work from 11am to 7pm but was asked to come in at 8am to do chicken instead so I did. Regardless I worked the scheduled day after the Holiday. I got the feeling that since I called out on Friday that some bunghole manager took away my holiday pay! I will bet you a thousand bucks that their premise is that I didnt work the assigned shift I was given on Wednesday. I can not wait until tomorrow when I get the glory to go find out who the dungwad manager is who decided to take away my holiday pay is and under what premise they did it then didnt have the courage but rather the audacity to not even tell me prior to getting paid that I would not be receiving it.
Sh+t like this is what purely makes Kroger and its managerial staff just worthless garbage trash f*ckholes who think they can mess around with their employees. This has crossed the line so damn far with me I just might never come back to orbit with Kroger ever again. it makes me want to become a union steward so damn bad an continually mess with my store's management so they know they better not cross lines with people no more.
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I am no longer part of the oppressed, evil workforce of Kroger! Can you say "Hallelujah"
it makes me want to become a union steward so damn bad an continually mess with my store's management so they know they better not cross lines with people no more.
Under my contact it says, "Full-time employees who are absent of their own accord during a holiday week shall be paid only for hours actually worked, except where absence is caused by proven illness or is excused by the employer." It says the same thing about part-time workers. If you don't show up on a day you're suppose to work you lose your holiday pay.
"in a week in which one of the above holidays occurs, a full-time associate who works their scheduled work day before and their scheduled work day after the holiday will receive eight (8) hours straight-time pay in addition to the actual hours worked. Absence during a holiday week caused by illness substantiated by a doctor's certificate or absence approved in advance by the Employer, shall not disqualify the associate for holiday pay, provided they have performed some work in the holiday week."
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I am no longer part of the oppressed, evil workforce of Kroger! Can you say "Hallelujah"
The wording in the two contracts may be different but they say the same thing. In other words, if you are absent during a holiday week due to proven illness or excused by the employer you still get your holiday pay. If it's an unexcused absence, you lose your holiday pay. There's nothing in there that says you get holiday pay just because you worked the day after the holiday. I'm afraid you're out of luck on this one.
The wording in the two contracts may be different but they say the same thing. In other words, if you are absent during a holiday week due to proven illness or excused by the employer you still get your holiday pay. If it's an unexcused absence, you lose your holiday pay. There's nothing in there that says you get holiday pay just because you worked the day after the holiday. I'm afraid you're out of luck on this one.
that is not the way I read it. Lets break this down.
We can all agree that there are two sentences here in this section about who gets holiday pay. The 1st sentence is relatively simple to understand saying if you are FULL TIME and you work the day before and the day after a holiday then you get holiday pay. So based on that alone he should get the pay PERIOD, right?
now the next sentence gets a little wordy. it says "Absence during a holiday week caused by illness substantiated by a doctor's certificate or absence approved in advance by the Employer, shall not disqualify the associate for holiday pay, provided they have performed some work in the holiday week"
Suppose the holiday was ohhh the Forth of July and it was on a Thursday. Now suppose an employee was real sick and missed work on Tuesday, Wednesday and was off on Thursday the holiday then came back on Friday. So he didn't qualify for the Holiday pay based on sentence #1. But he brings in a doctor's note. So now he can get the holiday pay. What that sentence is covering is - hey yea - if you happen to be sick during a holiday week and got a note then bring it in. But no where does it say that it cancels out those who qualify already based on the 1st sentence. Crap happens. People get sick for a day or their car breaks down or whatever. The company just cant arbitrarily take away a day's pay for that. That would be crazy! People dont run to the doctor if they are sick for 1 day. That wouldnt be a correct use of our medical system. Now if you were sick on the day before or after and can not substansiate it then yea you are screwed.
So in essence this is a matter of semantics or interpretation. Everybody seems to read things then get their own meaning from it. So we need to go back to whoever wrote it and find out exactly what is meant from it.
WELL WELL THE WORM HAS TURNED! TRY GETTING THIS TREATMENT FOR OVER 30 YEARS AND U'LL UNDERSTAND US DISGRUNTLED LIFERS!!
i never said i was the Company's glory boy Yes Man. You apparently think I am. I'm just a deli schmo earnin my pay. Then my asswipe store manager takes away my holiday pay. Yea I'm upset. I have been before - I will be again.
I got no idea how any one can put in over 30 years. I commend you and all who do it for your diligence. I'll be surprised if I get another year in.
that is not the way I read it. Lets break this down.
We can all agree that there are two sentences here in this section about who gets holiday pay. The 1st sentence is relatively simple to understand saying if you are FULL TIME and you work the day before and the day after a holiday then you get holiday pay. So based on that alone he should get the pay PERIOD, right?
You're assuming that what the OP wrote in his original post wrote is correct. He is assuming that you get paid for a holiday if you work the day before and the day after. But that's not what the contract says. My contract mentions nothing about working the day before or the day after. I'm pretty sure his is the same. Anyway, his excuse was car trouble. That's not an excused absence.
I know someone that was sent home for the day because he was about 15 minutes late, and was told that he would not get his holiday pay either for that week. I didn't think that was fair, so I asked about it. I found out that you have to work the full 32 hours scheduled to get your holiday pay.
I was just wondering, couldn't he have taken a personal day for the day that he was sent home. It would have filled the 32 hour gap so that the most he would have lost would be one day (having to use a personal day).
The wording in the two contracts may be different but they say the same thing. In other words, if you are absent during a holiday week due to proven illness or excused by the employer you still get your holiday pay. If it's an unexcused absence, you lose your holiday pay. There's nothing in there that says you get holiday pay just because you worked the day after the holiday. I'm afraid you're out of luck on this one.
that is not the way I read it. Lets break this down.
We can all agree that there are two sentences here in this section about who gets holiday pay. The 1st sentence is relatively simple to understand saying if you are FULL TIME and you work the day before and the day after a holiday then you get holiday pay. So based on that alone he should get the pay PERIOD, right?
now the next sentence gets a little wordy. it says "Absence during a holiday week caused by illness substantiated by a doctor's certificate or absence approved in advance by the Employer, shall not disqualify the associate for holiday pay, provided they have performed some work in the holiday week"
Suppose the holiday was ohhh the Forth of July and it was on a Thursday. Now suppose an employee was real sick and missed work on Tuesday, Wednesday and was off on Thursday the holiday then came back on Friday. So he didn't qualify for the Holiday pay based on sentence #1. But he brings in a doctor's note. So now he can get the holiday pay. What that sentence is covering is - hey yea - if you happen to be sick during a holiday week and got a note then bring it in. But no where does it say that it cancels out those who qualify already based on the 1st sentence. Crap happens. People get sick for a day or their car breaks down or whatever. The company just cant arbitrarily take away a day's pay for that. That would be crazy! People dont run to the doctor if they are sick for 1 day. That wouldnt be a correct use of our medical system. Now if you were sick on the day before or after and can not substansiate it then yea you are screwed.
So in essence this is a matter of semantics or interpretation. Everybody seems to read things then get their own meaning from it. So we need to go back to whoever wrote it and find out exactly what is meant from it.
You're an idiot.
The full time associates are guaranteed the holiday pay UNLESS THEY CALL IN SICK DURING A HOLIDAY WEEK. pretty cut and dry!
